I'm comparing the performance of Fama French three factor and Carhart four factor models. For the regression analysis, I have used the 25 Value Weighted portfolios sorted on size and B/M.
The Table above are the values obtained for the GRS ([Gibbons, Ross and Shanken][3]) test. I'm not sure about the way to analyse this table. Can anyone help me please?
Answer
You don't have a GRS test there that all the alphas are zero. You have a χ2 test that all the alphas are zero. (The p-value associated with that test statistic corresponds to a chi-squared distribution with 25 degrees of freedom. 1 - chi2cdf(81.338394, 25) = 7.029276349879154e-08
)
Perhaps examine this answer here.
Quick review of the F-test (GRS test)
- Under the assumption of normal error terms, that are homoskedastic and uncorrelated over time, one can apply an F-test that all the alphas are zero.
The Gibbons Ross Shanken (GRS) test is what finance calls a statistical F-test for the hypothesis that all the alphas (from a set of time-series regressions) are zero. Each αi is the intercept term in a time-series regression of excess returns rit−rft on factors.
Perhaps examine this answer on the meaning of alpha and why a test that all alphas are zero constitutes a joint test of market efficiency and an asset pricing model.
Quick review of χ2 test
Dropping the assumption of normally distributed error terms, there exists a test-statistic that asymptotically approaches the χ2 distribution. Let n be the number of test assets (in your case 25), and let T be the number of time periods. Define test statistic J as:
J=Tα′Σ−1α1+μ′fΣ−1fμf
J∼χ2(n)
Definition of variables are given here. Cochrane (2005) shows how to derivate the test statistic as a special case of the Sargan-Hansen J test. You might examine Cochrane's notes here.
References:
Cochrane, John, Asset Pricing, 2005, p. 230
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