If an underlying doesn't pay dividends (for our purpose defined as any distribution to the underlying's holder) directly or indirectly (e.g. options on futures) how does put-call parity change from the usual assumption of a European option?
In particular, I'm thinking of bond options like the 10-year Treasury Note. Clearly options like these are worth more but how much more and what factors are required to evaluate put-call parity?
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