I am thinking of using SABR for non-rate underlyings (eg FX and equity underlyings).
Typically one finds the beta via a regression of historical implied vols vs forwards, since ln(atm vol)=ln(α)−(1−β)×ln(forward).
However for FX and equity underlyings, it is not uncommon to find a resulting beta either negative or above 1.
My question : is the SABR model still valid for beta values outside the typical [0,1] range?
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