I have a two-asset Black-Scholes model for a financial market:
dBt=Btrdt
dSt=St(μdt+σdWt)
I introduce a European claim ξ=max(K,ST) with maturity T, for some fixed K. I have calculated what the no-arbitrage price of this claim should be at each time $t
I know that if V(t,S) is a solution to the Black-Scholes PDE subject to the terminal condition V(T,S)=max(K,S), then V(t,St) is a no-arbitrage time-t price for ξ, and that the trading strategy given by taking initial wealth to be V(0,S0) and the time-t holding in the stock to be ∂V∂S is a replicating strategy for the claim.
If I view the pricing function I originally found (by computing expectations) as a function ξ(t,St), is it necessarily true taking initial wealth to be ξ(0,S0) and taking time-t holding in the stock to be ∂ξ∂S will give a replicating portfolio? It should be, simply due to the fact there is a unique equivalent martingale measure in this market, so there must be a unique no-arbitrage time -t cost for the claim at each time t, and so ξ(t,St) must solve the Black-Scholes PDE.
My question is, is it possible to prove that this trading strategy does replicate the claim without appealing to the fact that the pricing function solves the Black-Scholes PDE?
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