Can anyone explain in an intuitive manner a justification for possible preferences of investors for moments of return distribution beyond the first two moments (i.e. mean and variance). For example, why it is often argued that positive skewed distributions are preferred to negative ones? Is it related to known concept of risk aversion?
Subscribe to:
Post Comments (Atom)
-
I've been tasked with drafting the text for a memorial plaque dedicated to group X. Group X was big, diverse, and had several hundred ye...
-
If all fields in a form are required should they be marked somehow (eg. with an asterisk)? I see this done a lot and find it redundant? Ther...
-
I am trying to place this raster logo supplied by a client on a large format template (this being a raster logo of some text in Arial is a s...
No comments:
Post a Comment