I'm trying to get an intuition as to why the adjusted closing price includes a dividend adjustment:
1−dividendclose
I understand why the adjusted closing price "undoes" the effect of a split on a stock. A stock split hasn't changed the economics of a company so the adjustment effectively removes the split so that the adjusted closing prices before and after the split can be compared.
A dividend does change the underlying economics however so why does the adjusted price account for it? Lastly, the formula also doesn't make sense.
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