I have been trying to understand the H&W model expression for zero coupon bond price volatilities:
$\nu_B(t_0,t_M)=-\frac{\nu_r}{m}(1-e^{-m\tau_{0,M}})$,
where $\nu_B(t_0,t_M)$ is zero coupon bond price volatility, $\nu_r$ is the short rate volatility, $m$ is the mean-reversion level (or speed?) and $\tau_{0,M}$ is the time to maturity.
I have looked in all the associated papers but found no exact match for this expression. What is the intuition and how exactly do you get this expression?
Edit: made notation clearer
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