Sunday, October 6, 2019

options - Why Drifts are not in the Black Scholes Formula


This question has puzzled me for a while.


We all know geometric brownian motions have drifts $\mu$:


$dS / S = \mu dt + \sigma dW$


and different stocks have different drifts of $\mu$. Why would the drifts go away in Black Scholes? Intuitively, everything else being equal, if a stock has higher drift, shouldn't it have higher probability of finishing in-the-money (and higher probability of having higher payoff), and the call option should be worth more?


Is there an intuitive and easy-to-understand answer? thanks.




No comments:

Post a Comment

technique - How credible is wikipedia?

I understand that this question relates more to wikipedia than it does writing but... If I was going to use wikipedia for a source for a res...