We try to analyze the average correlation of a portfolio as it can be found here in section 2 b), the same formula which is also used by the CBOE to calculate implied correlations:
ρav(2)=σ2−∑Ni=1w2iσ2i2∑Ni=1∑Nj>iwiwjσiσj
EDIT:Assuming that σ2=∑Ni=1∑Nj=1wiwjσiσjρi,j, where ρi,i=1, for i=1,…,N, the above expression can be written as ρav(2)=∑Ni=1∑Nj>iwiwjσiσjρi,j∑Ni=1∑Nj>iwiwjσiσj.
The following questions arise.
- Assuming that wi∈R, i.e. long/short leverage is allowed, is it possible that |ρav(2)|>1 ? Note that we don't assume ∑wi=1.
- Does there already exist the notion of contribution to average correlation? Meaning that e.g. in a long/short portfolio, where average correlation should be close to zero, I can identify positions that drive the average correlation up (in absolute value).
Answer
I did some calculations in mathematica in the 3 asset case. Assume we have exposures wi,i=1,2,3 and volatilities σi,i=1,2,3 and correlations ρ1,2,ρ1,3,ρ2,3. Let's assume σ1=σ2=σ3=σ for some arbitrary positive σ. For the weights we assume w2=w3=0.5 and we have a short in asset 1 of w1=−0.5. Then the above formula becomes ρav(2)=ρ1,2+ρ1,3−ρ2,3.
The mathematica code is the following:
pfvar[w1_, w2_, w3_] := w1^2*[Sigma]1^2 + w2^2*[Sigma]2^2 + w3^2*[Sigma]3^2 + 2*([Sigma]1*[Sigma]2*[Rho]12*w1*w2 + [Sigma]1*[Sigma]3*[Rho]13*w1*w3 + [Sigma]3*[Sigma]2*[Rho]23*w3*w2)
impliedCorr[w1_, w2_, w3_] := (pfvar[w1, w2, w3] - (w1^2*\[Sigma]1^2 + w2^2*\[Sigma]2^2
+ w3^2*\[Sigma]3^2))/( 2*(\[Sigma]1*\[Sigma]2*w1*w2 + \[Sigma]1*\[Sigma]3*w1*
w3 + \[Sigma]3*\[Sigma]2*w3*w2) )
impliedCorr[w1, w2, w3] /. w2 -> w3 /. [Sigma]2 -> [Sigma]3 /. [Sigma]3 -> [Sigma]1 /. w3 -> 0.5 /. w1 -> -0.5 // Simplify
[Rho]12 + [Rho]13 - [Rho]23 /. [Rho]12 -> 0.95 /. [Rho]13 -> 0.95 /. [Rho]23 -> 0.89
EDIT: Thanks to @John I found a mistake and corrected ρ2,3 to 0.89.
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