I am currently reading Volatility Trading, I have only just started, but I am trying to understand a "derivation from first principles" of the BSM pricing model.
I understand how the value of a long call (C) and delta-hedged short position (ΔS) in the underlying is given by:
C−ΔSt
where
- C is the value of the long call option
- St is the spot price of the underlying at time t
- Δ is the hedge ratio.
On page 9, I also understand that the change in the value of said portfolio, as the underlying moves from St to St+1 is given by:
(1.2)
C(St+1)−C(St)−Δ(St+1−St)+r(C−ΔSt)
where the last term is money earned from reinvesting net received funds obtained in establishing the position at a rate r.
The change in the option value is then obtained via a second-order Taylor series approximation:
(1.3)
Δ(St+1−St)+12(St+1−St)2∂2C∂S2+θ−Δ(St+1−St)+r(C−ΔSt)
where θ is time decay.
I don't see how the author moves from equation 1.2 to equation 1.3, as it is not clear (at least to me) what function f(x) he is approximating in 1.3
I would be grateful if someone could explain how the author makes the leap from equation 1.2 to the Taylor approximation (1.3) given on page 9.
Answer
He is approximating C(St+1) around t:
C(S_{t+1})=C(S_{t}) + \frac{\partial C(S_{t})}{\partial S_{t}}(S_{t+1}-S_{t})+\frac{(S_{t+1}-S_t)²}{2}\frac{\partial^{2}C(S_{t})}{\partial S_{t}^{2}} + ...
In addition, he takes the time value of C(S_t) into account (and I look only at the time contribution here):
C(S_{t+1})-C(S_t)=\Delta t\frac{\partial C}{\partial t}+...=\Delta t\cdot\theta+..
There, the first equation is just the derivative of the option with regard to t. Usually, \theta is the loss of the option value in a day, so it is just a question of normalization here. If you put everything together, you get the step you are looking at.
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