Consider a Black-Scholes formula for option pricing on conditional interest rate r=0 for European call option. Let's write it as BSCall(σ) and investigate it as a function of unknown non-random constant volatility.
We can look at historical asset price data and compute sample variance s which distribution law depends on unknown true σ. It has an important property of (n−1)s2σ∼χ2n−1.
Due to MLE plug-in property we know that if ˆσ is an MLE for volatility σ then BSCall(ˆσ) is an MLE for Black-Scholes price.
But this is just a point estimator. Is there any approach to compute the variance or confidence interval (HDI) for option price under volatility estimated with sample variance?
I tried to use a trick from expected-value-of-black-scholes but it seems to be incorrect since rewriting σ=(n−1)s2χ2n−1 brings some exogeneous uncertainty by sampling Chi-squared.
Answer
I think the easiest way to to what you want is to use confidence intervals (statistical inference).
In other words, assuming the population has a true variance σ, the sampling distribution of the variance s2 of an n-sample verifies: s2(n−1)σ2∼χ2n−1
You can exploit this result to build an 1−α confidence interval for the population variance (α∈[0,1], typically α=5%).
Indeed, for a confidence level 1−α, the following equality holds: zα/2≤s2(n−1)σ2≤z1−α/2
where zq figures the quantile q of a chi-squared distribution with n−1 degrees of freedom i.e. X∼χ2n−1,P(X≤zq)=q
Given a sample variance ˜s2, one can therefore turn the inequality on its head, to write, for a confiedence level 1−α: ˜s2(n−1)z1−α/2≤σ≤˜s2(n−1)zα/2
This could then help you construct 1−α confidence bounds on the BS option price given the measure sample variance ˜s2: V+=BSCall(σ+),V−=BSCall(σ+)
[Edit]
Given your desire to obtain a full distribution, why not opt for a Bayesian approach?
Assume the true population variance σ2 follows a certain prior distribution with hyperparameter α, p(σ;α) over R+.
Suppose that, for a specific sample, you measure a sample variance s2 and wish to compute the posterior of the population variance. Bayes' rule gives: p(σ2|s2,α)=p(s2|σ2)∫∞0p(s2|σ2)p(σ2;α)dσ2p(σ2;α)
Now you know:
- The prior distribution p(σ2;α): you postulated it.
- The sampling distribution p(s2|σ2): s2∼σ2/(n−1)χ2n−1
Hence you have everything you need to compute the posterior distribution.
Obviously, if you stick with the Maxium A Posteriori (MAP) estimator, once again you'll have a pointwise estimate, so I suggest you to perform the full integration. Off the top of my head chi-squared distributions does not allow for conjugate priors so you might have to resort to numerical integration (e.g. adaptive quadrature and the likes).
Finally, the choice of hyper-parameter α will have an impact on the resulting posterior: you might want to set α so that the prior distribution is centered around the sample variance for instance?
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