For a pure equity process (with interest rate, dividend, etc., being zero) not necessarily the geometric Brownian motion, is the delta of a European call option always no higher than 1? I am NOT asking for the Black-Scholes delta, but a model free general property of the European call delta. We can consider this question with and without the martingale property that the expected underlying price should be the current price.
I have also formulated this question a more formal fashion here as a calculus of variation or linear programming problem.
Answer
It is false. Here is an example. Let dSt=rStdt+f(S0)StdWt,
Note that the example is highly artificial in that volatility is a function of S0 rather than St.
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